Developments in Taxation: Constitutionality of Service Tax; and Tax Planning through the “Mauritius Route”
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9 responses to “Developments in Taxation: Constitutionality of Service Tax; and Tax Planning through the “Mauritius Route””
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Post this decision, what is the best jurisdiction to structure investment inflows, from a tax perspective? Can the Mauritius route be used, any ideas for getting around this judgment?
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On the mentioned development re.-conctitutionality of Service Tax: On the first blush, in one's perception, the arguments of both sides seem to have been primarily confined to / mainly focused on the question whether or not it was, having regard to the overriding constraint in the Constitution, within the power of the Central Government to levy 'service tax' on rent from immovable property/land and building. In other words, arguments on the crucial question whether, and why a pure and simple letting out of ‘the property’, which entails/or includes no element of ‘service’ within its ordinary, as well as its strict legal connotation (de hors any 'deeming'), so as to be justifiably regarded as 'service' and be subjected to tax on that premise does not seem to have been sufficiently stressed, as warranted. Should that be so, or even otherwise, perhaps, this is an aspect on which the 'experts' active in the field would be obliged to apply their mind, after a close study of the entire Court judgment, and come out with ideas on the scope left, if any, for pursuing the ongoing battle against such or similar levy. For this purpose,it might be worth examining, for getting at useful clues,the specific provisions of the Income-tax Act, as also the long line of court decisions, on a related issue, howsoever remote that be. That is, – whether or not income from pure and simple letting out of ‘property’, for a rent, has the characteristics of ‘business’ so as to be taxed as ‘business income’, or as income under other heads – ‘house property’ or ‘other sources'.
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@Anonymous: I dont think it is impossible to point out the "best" jurisdiction which will work in each and every situation. And yes, the Mauritius route can be used; though it will be better if in substance the investment is made by a Mauritius-based entity. The Court has frowned on this arrangement of "permitted transferee" being a Mauritius company, when all the incidents of ownership vest in the American parent. I dont think that this judgment can be read as implying that in all cases, Mauritius-based transactions would suffer.@vswami: The issue of whether mere renting is a service or not was indeed argued before the High Court. The problem, is, let us assume for a moment that mere renting is not a service. U/E 97, however, as long as no List II/III entry is transgressed, Parliament has the power to define "service" in any way it wants. (In a sense, the analogy is to the real income principle – by statute, it is open for Parliament to override the real income theory. So too, by statute, Parliament can override the fact that in common parlance, mere renting may not be a service.
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"…..as long as no List II/III entry is transgressed, Parliament has the power to define "service" in any way it wants."I personally see no logic, in the suggested view of the expert columnist: as, otherwise, what follows is – the Parliament is supreme, hence can bypass the very basic original idea in having 2 separate entries, by so changing the otherwise accepted/acceptable meaning (for other purposes e.g.I TAX) of 'service', within its dictionary or legal meaning.As to the analogy of 'real income',I think it makes more sense to bear in mind- the age old distinct concepts of – 'earned' and 'unearned' income. However, as I said,a truly detailed study and examination with a fine toothed comb of the lines of reasoning adopted in the regime of I TAX is called for.I have in the back of my mind a very old court case (was it a Gift tax case – Getti Chettiar?)wherein the SC ruled that a co-owner (HUF?)cannot be regarded to have effected any 'transfer' – (despite the very wide meaning given per statutory definition), -if he relinquishes his rights in favour of the other co-owners.(May be, one can find such view taken in partnership cases as well)
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A Rider: If the proposition sought to be canvassed, namely, – the Parliament is 'omnipotent' and has unlimited powers /competence to make any enactment as it likes – were to be accepted, then, in one's perception,that would make a nonsense of those plethora of cases where the constitutional validity of any number of enactments have been / still continue to be challenged on the ground of – 'ultra vires'; I am open to correction, if this observation is void, with no substance.For more thoughts: REF. the Blogs: EARLIER POSTs-10TH MARCHhttp://vswaminathan-swamilook.blogspot.com/2011/03/levy-of-service-tax-if-at-all-justified.html15th Marhttp://vswaminathan-swamilook.blogspot.com/2011/03/constitutional-law-amendment-of.html
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Will respond in detail to the points: but just one question- if parliament had levied a "Parliamentary Tax on renting of immovable property" instead of a "Service tax on renting of immovable property", would that still be subject to a competence-based challenge? If not, why does the fact that parliament chose something to be defined as a "service" matter? Today, a gift tax is levied as a tax on income from other sources – is that on its own grounds enough to challenge the validity of the tax?To my mind, the nomenclature of the tax is irrelevant: one needs to ask (a) what is the nature of the tax, in substance; (b) is a tax of that nature covered under List II? In the case of the impugned tax, the nature of the tax is not something which can be called a tax on land and buildings. No other List II entry would be transgressed, either.
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Also, regarding your rider: the position is that if a law does not fall within entries 1-96 of list 1, then unless and until a law falls within lists 2 or 3, it shall be deemed to fall within entry 97 list 1. In each and every case where a central act was struck down on grounds of competence, it was because the same was referable to a specific entry in list 2. As stated in the previous comment, I'l post a more detailed reply: meanwhile, pl. let me know if there is any specific entry in list 2 where you think the impugned levy falls under?-Mihir
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It is heartening for me to note that my brief but quick comments, primarily intended to provoke a 'lively' and 'purposeful' debate, has set in motion and met with some result. It is my earnest wish, and is more desirable, that it is kept going/ alive through a greater participation by, apart from (Mr?)'Anonymous', others having exposure or experience in dealing with the complexities of the 'Constitution'(admitting, to be true to myself, to be one not at all profoundly ‘equipped’ so as to profess to be one of them).I have only one suggestion: While on this subject, one may usefully have a look at the lines of reasoning, though mutually varying, adopted by courts – the last one reported is in itatonline @ – "Service tax is payable on Sale of SIM cards, no sales tax – even if Sales tax is wrongly paid, Service Tax is payable – Supreme Court"
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Sorry!It should be read: 'taxguru' (in place of 'itatonline')
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